These issues revolve around the concept of pure space and what I am calling 'otherable space'.
For example, much editorial ink has been spilled over the question, why did he [Lord Byron] underpunctuate his poetic manuscripts – or even whether his manuscripts are under-, or just Byronically-, punctuated.
The apparent contradictions in his behaviour should therefore be discounted as ingenuous attempts to extricate himself from the consequences of an intellectual position which he once adopted but was never really his by intimate conviction.
But do orientations like aromanticism deserve to be discussed to the same extent as other, more common non-heteronormative ones?
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