Consider Peirce's law, ((P→Q)→P)→P). If Q is true, then P→Q is also true so the law reads "If truth implies P then deduce P" which certainly makes sense. If Q is false, then (P→Q)→P≡(P→⊥)→P≡¬P→P≡¬P→P and ¬P≡¬P→⊥≡¬¬P so the law reads ¬¬P→P, which is intuitionistically false but equivalent to the classical axiom ¬P∨P.